Myrulet Visual Prediction System VB2

Ok Forester.
That means that if for example in my roulette wheel i have 160 in acc4,
my formula would be this

T4=(1510 + ACC) / [{rotor in sec.} x ACC] ; for system set in Accuracy 4

Ok so

1510+160/(2*160)=5.2sec

when ball is traveling at 1 sec per rotation i press at one point and after 5.2 sec i read the number. Will work? I think is very fast rotor…

If rotor were 3 secs
1510+160/(3*160=3.5 sec

If rotor were 4 secs
1510+160/(4*160)=2.6 sec

Can be possible? For me is too much time in all cases, its possible?

Get ACC in accuracy 2,
From all example I showed you could see that we lose linearity when the ball is slower then 1.2 s.
If you have acc at 1.5 s of 160 in acc2 it may be 200. We can use this formula only on parts of curve where the ball dec. increasing per rotation. That is why you should use accuracy 2.

I wouldn’t play 2 sec rotor it will be hard.
I never used time larger then 2 sec, so I can’t answer your question.

This VB may look simple and it is but it is not a miracle.
On your wheel you will have predictions 12-15 sec before then ball drops.
On 2 sec rotor that is 7 rotor rotations.

If I observe rotor changes during few hours of play. It deviates in 2 sec observed time by 9 pockets. And 6 pockets if rotor is within 3-4 sec/ rotation. Do the math.
3 pockets per sec and 14 sec to the end = 42 pockets to adjust.

With 2 sec rotor you will have trouble and noticing differences.

1000+200/(2.5200)=2.4 sec
1000+200/(2
200)=3 sec

Also you may not have very constant rotor.
Look the difference if it is 2.5 s rotor
You will have time wrong by 0.6s
Even if you make proper adjustment for rotor you will deviate with prediction double then what I was explaining, so probably 12 pockets, if your starting time deviates within 4 sec.

You will be better off using FFZ.
You may get few pockets in error clocking but remaining should be accurate with minimal errors.

Real roulette game.

-18 xxx
-17 xxx
-16
-15 xx
-14 xx
-13 x
-12 x
-11
-10 x
-9 xx
-8 x
-7 xx
-6 x
-5 xxx
-4 x
-3 xx
-2 xx
-1 xxx
0 xxxx
1 xxxx
2 xxxx
3 x
4 xxx
5
6 x
7 x
8
9 xxxx
10 x
11
12 x
13
14
15
16 x
17 x
18 x

Here are details of recent VB I played.
If I played in average sector of 9 pockets by $10 around prediction
I would win $8640 and I would place $5130 units.
So I would profit $3510.
It would be great for played 57 spins in 2-3 hours.

But reality wasn’t like that.
I did not play 9x $10 per spin
Some spins I played $40 some spins $160, some spins I covered 5 pockets some 9.
Bad luck was that none of spins where I played high amounts did win.
Also not always everything was perfectly covered. Some did win but not where was $30 on number.

One spin I have had prediction 17 the ball stopped at 34 one pocket and I did not play 34.
Same happened with prediction 21 and the ball stopped on 25, or 3-7.
I did not play much as early bets but whatever I played it was lost with higher then 2.7% house advantage.

Anyway after maybe 47 spins I was in front only $700.
I took a brake, and on return decided to play again.

I did have clear advantage and prediction where the ball will drop was very good.

First spin on return I played $160 around 30.
The ball hits 17 jumps to 30 then jumps back to 6. Ouch I had nothing on 6.
Next spin 7-13 spinner
Next 1-26 spinner
Next 8-35 looks as wrong prediction
Next 1-25 looks as wrong prediction
Here I noticed that predictions may be wrong.
Few spins earlier the ball JUMPED out but the dealer used same ball.
After 1-25 it jumped out again.
Next spin I have had 0-26 , win but it was spinner, again I wasn’t sure if prediction is still ok.
Next 11-12 spinner
Next 17-24
Next 5-18 spinner
Next 25 -26 the ball come to 2 but then jumped back
Next 7-0 spinner
Next 7-30 spinner
Time to stop, I lost all profit , to many spinners and I wasn’t sure about prediction any more.
Since this wasn’t strongly tilted wheel, I noticed that I also lost DD. On the end the table was loaded with people so probably and tilt has gone due to pressure they applied.

This would be my aggressive way of play.
If any of attempts when $160 played had good hit I would be able to continue playing high bets. But that did not happen therefore in this particular case I would be much better of if I played more constant amounts.

Not very good example how VB works.

It looks as it scared everybody.

And I thought people will just love it same as I do. :-\

VB2 is excellent.
I think what scares people is the “starting” part of your observation.

It is really simple. But what is hard is to notice linearity of the ball revolution. This comes with practice, practice, practice and again practice.

When you observe video spins and rewind them again and again it becomes very clear what to look for.

And then it is up to you, which will be your counting method.

For me it is the same as for forester. Fast counting from 1-10 means 1,2s. If i need observation time of 1,6s i count 1-10 and add 1,2,3. I have a great feeling of the rythm because i am musician among other things. So i came to the point, when i can count for example 3,8s rotor with ±50ms, which i think is good accuracy.

So what you need to do.

  1. Define ACC. Time few spins and seek for average deceleration of the ball. In my local casino i could define ACC in 3,4 spins. I have stopwatch on my mobile which allows me to time “laps”.
  2. See if rotor is reasonably constant. Time it.
  3. Seek for linearity of ball rev. That is the hardest part. But you can learn it from experiences.

lets say:

You have 200ms ACC.
You have 3,5s rotor
You seek 1,2s/ball rev, because that is the time when ball starts to decelerate linear.

VB2 says that at that moment you have to observe the ball for 1200:(3,5x200)=1,7s.

So when I fast count to 10 and ball makes exatcly 1 rotation, i quickly count again to 10 and add 1,2,3,4 to reach cca 1,7s. I look which number is under the ball.

I hope i explained it ok.

Something as that.

I do not know on your wheel when the ball is 1.2s how much is remaining time.
You may be better of if you try to predict few rotations earlier.
If you have 1.2, 1.4, 1.6 you have 200ms difference in between rotations, but it also means that ball deceleration is dropping because rotations are longer.
200/1.2, 200/1.4, 200/1.6
You are better to predict at part where decc. is going up per rotation.
If you look earlier spins you may find
180/1=1, 150/0.85=176, 129/0.72=179, 110/0.6=183

First number is time difference in between rotations (deceleration per rotation), next one is length of rotation. So here we have same decc. per sec. and we would have linearity.

So how do you know if you selected right time?

Simply repeat the process during one spin.
For example, prediction at 15 sec and 10 sec to the end should be close.
If not increases or decrease time until it gets close, then confirm it and you are ready to go.

Okay, last go.

Lets say we target 1.2 secs.
Lets say we predict 17 in a revoloution and 17 comes out.
Lets say we forget about off set and scatter.
Lets say we use a thumper for the 1.2 sec interval and we get number 17 under 2 o`clock diamond.
Lets say we have a tiltet wheel.
Lets say we have the same rotor speed in each spin.

Next spin.
We come to a point where the ball takes 1.2 secs, to get 1 revoloution and lets say the ball travels from 2 oclock diamond to 2 oclock diamond in that interval. So i read the number below 2 o`clock ?

My Problem with that:
Depending on when i entered the spin, the thumper might as well indicate 1.2 sec at 1 oclock or 5 oclock and i wont get the same reading as i would under 2 oclock.
Or do i read the number below 2 o`clock no matter where the ball is when it indicates 1.2 sec.?

Ok that was listed perfect conditions for better understanding.

Next spin. We come to a point where the ball takes 1.2 secs, to get 1 revoloution and lets say the ball travels from 2 o`clock diamond to 2 o`clock diamond in that interval. So i read the number below 2 o`clock ?
Yes
My Problem with that: Depending on when i entered the spin, the thumper might as well indicate 1.2 sec at 1 o`clock or 5 o`clock and i won`t get the same reading as i would under 2 o`clock. Or do i read the number below 2 o`clock no matter where the ball is when it indicates 1.2 sec.?

There is no problem!

If you entered spin earlier, only then the ball may be at 5 o’clock.
So instead of one ball rotation it made 1 and ¼.
But since you entered earlier (cw ball) rotor would be by ¼ of rotation in earlier position. Therefore you would read same number again, as if you did it in next rotation.

So the secret is that time is adjusted so that in that reference time the difference that ball makes by entering spin in different time moment, matches rotor movement in that time difference.

Moment in time A 12 sec to end
Moment in time B 10 sec to end
Rotor 4 sec

Therefore from point A to point B rotor moves 18.5 pockets

So our reference time should be that when we apply that time to the ball, and the time ends in Point A, the distance which the ball makes is greater by 18.5 pockets if compared to if same reference time ends in point B.

Simple
If our reference time is 2 sec.
Once we start it at 14 sec, and it ends at 12s, the ball makes 2.5 rotations
If we applied it at 12 sec and it ends at 10, the ball will make 2.0 rotations
But for delay of 2 sec rotor made 0.5 rotation therefore 2.0 + 0.5 = 2.5 so we get same result as if we started at 14s.

I don`t think i expressed myself correct then. I still get the prediction in the same ball revoloution, but the thumper goes steady thump thump thump and imagine i run the spin on dvd again and again but the thump is now moved 1/10 th (or whatever) compared to the dvd because i start the dvd at random.

So i get the 1.2 thump for example in the exact same revoloution as the last time but at 5 (or 4 or 3) oclock instead of 2 oclock. That can never be the same number as the last time.

but the thumper goes steady thump thump thump
I never said I that I use thumper. I count or I use timer activated by switch [b](FFZ).[/b] So I start always at same position on the wheel frame.

Position changes only with different rotor speed.
No cards used but observation of position in relationship to result.

Let’s say I use 1.5 sec. time and I start at 12 o’clock.

Let’s say the rotor in that time makes 3/8 of wheel
And the ball stops at zero offset

Next spin I do same but this time the rotor makes 4/8 =1/2
And the ball stops at ¾ offset , it ends up by ¾ of wheel extra
Then I know that ¼ of wheel in rotor observation makes me ¾ change to final result

Anything in between is ~proportional so half or change of ¼ will be equal to half of ¾ on final result.

Of course you can use thumper as well but it would require additional adjustment in distance which would be the difference in between point where the thumper started and point where it should start.

1.5 sec would be too close to NMB but never mind.

I think you overcomplicated the explanations, its still just a definition of ball speed.
i`ll give it a go on the Joost wheel from rouletteseminar later today.

You are confused again.
It is not 1.5 sec rotation.
It is only the time that you need to apply at any rotation.
And read number under the ball.
If you want to try it try 1.5 sec or 2 sec . spin rotor about 4 sec.

How to know which time to apply, well as I explained earlier FFA.

Or apply it 2 times
Let’s say somewhere 14 sec before then ball drops read number then do it again at ~11 sec (same spin).
If first time you got number zero and next time number 4 (cw) most likely that you need to make your reference time longer.
If you get same number then time is ok.
So when you play no matter did you start at 14 sec or 11 you will get same result.
You can not use it when ball is slower then 1 or 1.2 sec (behind the knee point). Most likely ball deceleration per rotation is decreasing so errors will show up.

Hi Forester in your VB2 system, a reference pin and dominant drop pin is the same?

It doesn’t have to be.

Dominant pin is where the ball most of the time hits before then it drops.
Reference pin may be different.
It is a point where we observe number or where we start predicting.

Let say with VB2 dominant pin is a diamond at 12 o clock.
We start 2 sec time at 12 o’clock and we get predicted zero but the ball stops at 34 (9 pockets from there cw direction).
Next spin we do same, this time system predicts 10 but the ball stops around number 9 (9 pockets from there cw direction).

We can keep going that way but every time add to prediction 9 pockets in CW direction, or we can change reference pin from 12 0’clock to 3 o’clock (9 pockets in cw ball direction). When we change it then 3 o’clock will be our reference pin while 12 o clock is still dominant pin)

In addition to that, rotor speed may change.
Lets say it changes by 2 pockets in our observation time of 2 sec. It is 1 pocket per sec.
If our predictions were about 12 sec before then ball drops, and next spin the rotor is faster by 1 pocket per sec. It means that for remaining time from prediction until ball drops the rotor will make 12 pockets extra.
Now again we can add it after prediction or for that spin we can shift reference point by 12 pockets in ball direction, from 3 o’clock to ~7 o’lock. And then predicted number will be same as number where we expect ball to stop.
As you can see during this process we could keep reference point and same as dominant point and adjust where we going to place bets manually or we can shift out reference starting point and get accurate prediction without any offset to add.

hi together

maybe we can stay by the example from kelly with the 1,2 sec permanent thumper (what i use also)

if we look the same spin many times we get different points

how i do the angel or added that i get the same prediction???

maybe sombody can tell me this by the survilance spin what we download… for better understanding

on wich time i use 1,2 seconds and on wich time is better i use 1.0 seconds … by faster or slower wheel?

thanks a lot

Check this spin
http://rouletteplace.com/index.php/topic,562.msg4938.html#msg4938

If you use 1 or 1.2 sec and get different results, your reference time is probably not correct.

Use 2 sec and try.

So you can count 2 pulses 2x1 sec.
Problem is that your pulse will not always start at desired ball position, so you will have to make and adjustment for that.

For example if you want to start 2 sec time from 12 o’clock, and you get pulse when the ball is at 3 o’clock, after 2 sec you read number but you will have to deduct 9 pockets since your observation point was from 12to3 = 9 pockets in front.

I would like o use thumper with VB2, because I would make FFZ small like 20x30x5mm and stick to my skin, but it is easier if it has switch to start time at desired moment.

Theoretically it I possible with thumper but it requires more skill.

hi forester

thank you … it helps fine…

now i need do know “why” i use one time 1 sec other time 1,2 sec and now 2 sec.
by this sample he works nice with 2 seconds
you have one rule by the wheelspeed? or i need one mathematic?

Hello everyone!
1st of all i am very happy and proud that i am in this Forum,couse VB is so not popular and here a lot of Professionals are gathered.

I have an idea that maby is good in order to find everytime the exactly same revolution ,in order to make more acurate prediction.
i think the perpose of VB2 is to eleminate wrong revolutions errors but ass Forester says the prediction sometimes will be 3-4 pockets deference…i know that this is not catastrofic but maby this 3-4 pockets will cost as a win(if scater is the same)

i would like to expose it here and Masters Forester and Kelly and everyone else tell their opinion as they are so expirienced with VB projects and timings!
this idea also maby is good in order to can tell if the ball is gona hit our DD or not…or even if it will hit the next or the privious diamond from our dd.

so this is the idea.

My mobile phone has a metronome.and a stop watch
this is the tool we gonna need.
yesterday i was in a real casino counting times with the metronome and noone cared about it.

so this is what i do.

i observe 1 spin (that the ball is gonna hit the DD) and when the ball is about 5-6-7(no matter which one) revolutions before the end, i count the time of the 1 of those revolutions.
Let say that the timer said 1 sec to do an exactly 1 revolution.and then i observe and i see that this revolution that i timed was the 6th(so pleanty time to place bets after)

so now what i am doing?
i am puting in the metronome the time of 1 sec.
in the next spin i apply this time(to the dd)and if i see that by the end of that time the ball is again at the same dd(1 revolution exactly)this meens that i am in the corect revolution ,so in the next revolution(5th)i make my prediction.
if i see that the ball was after the 1 sec ,to the right(clockwise ball)of the dd(so 1 revolution and more)this isnt my right revolution,so what i do??
i leave the next to pass(the right one)and i make prediction to the next)5th.

if the opposite happens that meens that i was late…and i do not bet.

now if we can manage ,every time to select the right revolution,applying the 1 sec will tell us if the ball will gonna hit the DD or not.
if the ball is exactly after 1 sec at the DD the ball is gonna hit the DD.
if the ball is to the right of the dd,that meens that the ball is a little faster ,so it will hot the diamond next to our dd.
the same is when the ball is late…maby is better not to bet .

i hope i gave u a good idea.
i will be happy to see ur opinions
thank u

Duffy,
Yes if you read previous posts you can find how time is calculated.
For that you need FFA or recorded video spin.

Simplest way is o forget all theory and apply same reference time, two times during the spin and see if results do match.
You do not have to have time adjusted 100% according to rotor speed.

If you have rotor 4 -5 sec
When you apply same time to observe rotor, rotor will make 3/8 to 4/8 of rotation.
That would be nice speed range. 2 pocket per sec, or 4 pockets in your referecnce time of 2 sec.

So you learn to read in between diamonds one horizontal and next one vertical (4.5 pockets difference)

What rotor makes in between of that 1/8 of wheel you transfer to most likely to 4,5,6/8

Or multiply each extra pocket that rotor made by 4,5,6 (depends of wheel) and shift your starting point according to rotor change.

@viper5

You can do it that way but you will never know will the ball hit DD or not. Difference in ball speed can be so small especially since 1 sec is short time.

One of options with VB2 and used timer is also to look how much ball made in our reference time, that can give us indication if it will hit diamond or not.
For example the ball makes 1.5 rotations hits diamond, or he ball makes 1.6 and doesn’t hit DD. It is hard to follow it and still in most cases is not accurate.

When you using 1 sec time the difference in ball observation is only about 5 pockets, which represents full ball rotation. If VB2 uses 2 sec it would be 10 pockets so a bit easier.

ok Forester…thanks for the reply

i will simply stick to the original VB2.

i also want to tell that yestarday night i went to a casino and VB2 was very accurate.

i applye to the metronome 1.2 sec and when the ball was running 1 sec per revolution the prediction number was under the dd after the 1,2…the scater was something like 9 pockets,so i aplyed to the metronom
an extra 0.4 sec…
so aplying the final time of 1.6 i was very accurate.