VB2 question

Hi Forester,

I have tried VB2 with my interpretations and managed to profit in two different occasions. I would like to clear up the method and make sure that I understand it correctly. Let’s assume that the wheel is very constant and that the rotor speed is 4 sec. Let’s say that 1,2 sec is used. Let’s also say the DD is at 12 O’ clock

  1. Before the ball get’s spun, do i look at the number under 12 O’ clock as my start up number?

  2. In other words I wait for that number to pass the 12 O’ clock again with the ball crossing 12 O’ clock diamont before I start counting 1,2. seconds.

  3. Or do I just wait for the ball to cross 12 O’clock diamond without worrying about a first reference? This however does not sound right to me. So point 2 I assume is correct?

Kind regards

Toxic

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[td]1) Before the ball get’s spun, do i look at the number under 12 O’ clock as my start up number?[/td]
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Why to have it simple if we can complicate it.
Why to worry about anything before then the ball spins.
VB2 is the most simplest system.

2) In other words I wait for that number to pass the 12 O' clock again with the ball crossing 12 O' clock diamont before I start counting 1,2. seconds.

All you do is wait when the ball is about 5,6,7,8,9 rotations to go apply your time and read number under the ball. You always start applying the time when the ball is at particular position in each spin. That position can be any.
For example do it at 12 o’clock…1 spin…2,3,4,5 but ball most of the time stopping +9 pockets from your reference number which you read after 1.2 sec.
Then you add offset of 9 pockets or you simply shift your starting position by 9 pockets.

We assume here that rotor is constant and ball is CW direction.

3) Or do I just wait for the ball to cross 12 O'clock diamond without worrying about a first reference? This however does not sound right to me. So point 2 I assume is correct?

That is exactly what you do.
VB2 doesn’t have 2 reference points because it doesn’t need it.
(When I was designing the system I was also confused believing that I need and starting number)

Put it this way.
You start your time of 1,2 sec at 12 sec before then ball drops.
You read number.

But what if instead of 12 sec you started at 10 sec.
Obviously at them when you start VB2 the rotor will be at opposite direction. (2 sec. difference on 4 sec/r rotor)
But the ball after 2 sec (12-10=2) is slower so it will cross less pockets.
In out particular case it needs to make 18 pockets less so results do match.

1.2 se sounds to little, in usual it is 1.5 to 2 sec.

How do you know which time to use.

Its simple.
Repeat process during same spin.
For example use 1.2 sec.
Apply VB2 at let’s say 15 sec before then ball drops then again and again.
If time is right numbers should match.
If not change it and try again

Thank you for the prompt response. I appreciate it.

I actually played it slightly wrong but still did pretty well… :o

So I can hardly wait to get my ass to the casino and try it the correct way!

Thanx again!

Toxic

I have played another session yesterday. ;D

Went very well.

Thank you Forester.

Thanks for the email.
VB2 has no price :wink:
It is something that can be worth much or it can be worth nothing.
It depends of user how and where he uses it.
Past few days I played it a lot, made nice money then they leveled wheel, not fully.
I made 2 big losses about one third of my winnings.
The ball just did not like to stop there.
Everything and anything is possible on roulette.

By the way if you are visiting gamblersglen.com
Be careful, inside menu it has troyan horse.
You would need good antivirus protection.

I had two bad sessions last night and managed to give back 1800 bucks… >:(

I guess lessons learnt was that overconfidence is as dangerous as any bad habbit!

I played the same 2 wheels where I won the last couple of days. For some or other reason nothing worked.

On 50-60 spins anything can happen.
When I play I do not cover bets equally.
For example one sector I may cover in ships of $5
$2.5(split)-$5-$25-$5-$30-$2.5-$15-$5
That’s 8 pockets in total $90
If I play 60 spins and win every 4 spins I would win 15 times.
I have advantage. But will I win and how much it depends of hits bets with high value.
Playing 60 spins in by $90 in average is 5400 in total. If I play with 20 advantage I should win $1080 on ling run.
But on 15 winning spins if by luck the ball stops on pockets covered with small bets more (then an average) we may lose.
If only 2-3 of higher bets do not come but instead the ball stops on small bet like $5 it may make difference of $2000.
With such play it’s important to know if you play with advantage or not.

I had another 800 loss on Saturday and decided to sit back for a while.

I tracked a wheel for 14 spins, 7 CW AND 7CCW

12 from the 14 spins hit the 9 o’ clock diamond one came off the ral at about 7 and the other hit 3 diamond.

So 9 o’clock is very very dominant.

So howcome am I loosing? I think the rotor speed might be screwing me. I timed it at 3,5 sec. But it might be sometimes at 3 too. I do not check that enough I think.

Cheers
Toxic

You have to check rotor.
On some wheels casinos are very aware of dealers signature that high rollers are playing.
The most tilted wheels ever I found ion HR.
So they have especially trained dealers that they bring in if someone is rapidly winning.
The dealer is the most friendly he is even trying to help but on tilted wheel he can shut sections.
He keeps ball speed constant but slightly alternates wheel.
You always have to check rotor especially with VB2. (because it predicts early)
Avoid playing big rotor changes.
Imagine rotor is going 12 p/s
Then 13 p/s only one pocket difference.
But if you are predicting 12 sec before then the ball drops you are wrong by 12 pockets.
If I remember well you are counting 1.2 sec.
Make sure it is a right time. Just apply it 2-3 times during same spin and check if you read same reference number.
Then when you play also use your time (1.2) to compare rotor speeds.
1.2 is relatively short time.
You need to understand that for example one pocket change in rotor distance in 1.2 sec is actually 1/1.2=0.83 pockets per sec
So if you predicting 12 sec before then ball drops it is 0.83 x 12 =10 pockets change to point where the ball will drop.

You made nice advantage in past few plays do not lose it so easy.

:frowning:

:wink: Yes I am giving it all back to the casino :o

I will check the rotor speed better next time round and also I will double double check what time to use for the count.

Alot of variables though (like you say because it predicts early in the spin). Thanks for the prompt response!

Kind regards
Toxic

Even with VB2 you should focus to predict in same ball rotation the best you can.
It makes it more stable, even if time used is not so perfect and it is better to rotor speed changes. VB2 only fixes what you missed therefore it is easier to fix if mistakes are smaller.

When applying reference time you can also notice how much ball makes in that time.
That lets you know how much you deviate in estimation.
For example with 1.5 s time predict when the ball makes in 1.5 sec 1.5-2.5 rotations.
Practise makes it perfect !

Hi Forester,

been a while since I posted last.

I have been concentrating aloton FFV and more so I guess on VB2.

I’m getting VB2 pretty good now. Still Ihave one problem. I have mentioned it before. Sometimes I get exactly 180 degrees result from my prediction. Not meaning scatter but rather where the ball hits the rotor. How do I eradicate this? When I look at number under DD and count 1-1,5 sec. and look at my prediction number it could be say 0. Next rev though it will be 5… So I know you say that for so many revs the same number will come up after calculation on every revolution for that time.

Yet like I say I seem to get prediction then next rotation 180 degrees, then next prediction again. Am I correct when I say this? So I think that this is my problem that it depends ‘when’ I look to get which of the two results. Is it maybe too early in the prediction?

Thanks for your time and guidence!
Cheers mate

Toxic :wink:

First of all for VB2 to work you need reference time that
predicting in one rotation will give same result as prediction few rotations later during the spin.
That is actually how you define the reference time.

If during the spin you predict once and get predicted number zero then instantly you repeat prediction process (when the ball comes to same point you apply same reference time again and predict again) and get very different number (as number 5) then your reference time is wrong)
If you know that reference time is ok because you checked it and it works.
Read this post
http://rouletteplace.com/index.php/topic,1019.msg9037.html#msg9037
your prediction has to be earlier then the knee point, other way you may get problem you described.

Avoid playing fast rotor speeds and where rotor speed changes speed a lot.
Also look at this post
http://rouletteplace.com/index.php/topic,1019.msg9052.html#msg9052
and picture “Common errors for a VB2 player” the green area is possible theoretical errors when vb2 player does all perfectly for rotor speeds about 10 pockets per sec. You can see numbers covered from 29 to number 25. It is a lot however it isn’t really so bad.
Let’s say DD groups different ball speeds and 1100ms ball is predicted as zero and it drops at zero.
If we have same rotor (speed and position ) but the ball speed this time is 1050, such ball will~ be predicted as 19 but it will drop at 35, with difference that it should hit DD a bit higher.
If the ball was 1150 (slower) it may be predicted as 35 but it may hit at 19, this time the ball hits very low part of DD, therefore less time form DD to rotor and it hits rotor with more vertical angle, (expected less bouncing).
It doesn’t matter if we predicting few rotations earlier, if we analyse prediction within one ball rotation same is happening, that is why slower rotor speed is better for vb2.
Of course ball may drop wrongly simply if spin by itself is as that and for some reason makes the ball to go differently.

:wink: Thanx mate!

if i have constant rotor speed 2.5 sek(every time is 2,5 sek). and its all time constant and i have 50% dd an pockets are weary deep so ball scater is weary nice.

but spins are long whole spin about 40 sek
NMB at 20 sek before the end.
for that time when NMB is call ball make about 12 revolutions then drop

i used my ffz but prediction where bad i dont now why…??
I discover this wheal two days ago… still did not use vb2

can vb2 be used to predict 20 sec before drop?
and is there any chance to gain some advantage on this wheal ,whit this conditions…??

I copied your PM at forums support section.
http://rouletteplace.com/index.php?topic=1157

For VB2 if you have linearity is strange to get different results.
Check that rotor is really constant, maybe some spins it slows down faster.

Check this thread
http://rouletteplace.com/index.php?topic=1105.0
Cammegh Roulette Random rotor deceleration

If you using VB2 your reference time needs to be large, probably more than 2.5 sec.
Rotor is fast, more to compensate, also ball deceleration at those stages of spin is very small.
VB2 shouldn’t be used with fast rotor but since rotor sped is constant I assume it may be ok.

:wink: Just my 2 cents.

You could play VB2 using a 2 second reference time. If the rotor speed is constant at 2,5 sec, use it virtually. Use your DD and reference and lets say that your target number is 0 in a CW direction after 2 sec reference but the ball comes down onto the rotor at 34, then you know where to look. So next time round when you make your prediction and your target number is say 5 add 9 pockets CW, that should now be where the ball comes onto the rotor. Then add for scatter.

Cheers
Toxic

today im going to play for 2-3 hours with small units, to see can I do some advantage. I will try
vb2 more…
thanks
toxic and forester