Hello everybody
Recent time ı have been banned by two different casino because of my consistent winnings. From your experiences how do ı stay under the radar at casino for long period?
How much did you win?
What was your maximim win?
With FF or without?
180k$ in six months.Visited nearly every weekend.(5-6 night in a month).at least 8 hour Played per day.with just eye tracking.no ff.max win 33k in two night.
Man, you have been greedy! Do not be greedy - that is the only prevention.
But, well done!
I thought, the money ı earned from them is no important because other customers lose maybe 4-5 hundred k per day:)))
They know how much each table makes per day.
For example $1000 average bets per spin, every 3 minutes for 10 hours with 2.7 advantage should give them about $8,100.
I have several guys/friends who are crupie in england, so they have metodick, how to calculate almost ideally how much money players put on table and they see acordingly chips count how much they have in the table pocket ( not know how to name that ) . So they pretty good know all situation.
By the way, acordingly these guys, casino wins more than 2.7% , i have such feeling also, but not know clear reason…
I always wonder does it just look that way.
Forester depending on the calculation of %2.7 negative expectation you are true but nearly all customers even ıf they win or lose tend to raise their bet size aggresively (put all the chips in one spin) and generally lose all.so this kind of attitude would increase casinos bankroll over than 2.7
Some will increase bets and win more, on average it still should be 2.7.
yes exactly but when ı thınk again this issue, why casino profit more than %2.7 because maybe suppose you have 1820$ ın your pocket you started to play.assume ın each spin you are playıng with 200$.so on the 300.spin 200*300=60.000$/2.7 we expect that you lose 1620$ !! And on the 301. Spin you bet your last 200$ and assume that you lose.so what will be your negativity? You bet 60.000+200 $and you lose 1820$. 60200/100=602 1820/602=3.02!! -3.02 !! Even you resist for 300 spin!!! In reality ıf you have 1820 and you bet 200 for each spin, ın 30-40. Spin you lose it if you arent an advantage player lol:))) thats what ı see in real.
And thats probably because like in gamblers fallacy we tend to thınk that customers lose 2.7!! Yes ıts true but ın long term!!! But people play ın a short period and they have limited money that can last!! İf you have limited money f.e 100$ and you bet 25$ black 4 times and just one of them came black ( its very likely) that mean you you bet totally 100 $ but you have 50$. It means -50 negativity.
The 2.7% doesn’t relate to player money.
What if 1000 players come and each bet only 1 chip and if loses goes home. It doesn’t change anything casino still doesn’t win more. After him comes the next player this one may for 1 chip get 35 and on long run it happens every 37 spins. People can place $5k across all 37 numbers, casino still have 2.7% regardless did someone lose all his money or not.
So you say that on the long run ıt must be %2.7.
I believe so.
Sometimes i think as old question about a a snail , every day he goes 3 m up, every night 2m down . How long it will take to claim 10m pole? After 7 days/nights it will be on 7m, next day it will come to the top. So it is not 1m a day.
To find how many days (n) it may be something as this.
n = (height - down) / (up - down)
once the" n" is very large then “down” has less influence to the result. In casino the “n” i infinitive, but for the players one visit it is not.
Same we can say about player, he is 37m high every spin he gets down 1m and every 37he climbs 36m up. If within 37 spins he doesn’t clime up he hits the ground. That would represent 100% advantage, but we know that after that comes other players or even same player on return where within 37 spins he would climb more than once.
So why casino’s tables have got max bet limits? Maybe beause “n” is infinite for casino but they dont want customer play with infinite money.So from this point of wiev casino wants customer to finish his money at the table. If profit of %2.7 was true; by which reason casino put max bet limit at the table? If it was true casino must reasonably put no limit at the tables so they give permission to the customers to put much more money and at the and casino would earn much more money according to %2.7. I guess they profit much more than %2.7 regardless of theroetic probability calculations because customer s have got limited money and from psychologic wiev, players have unconcious desire to lose money. Thats another issue.
Someone may come with 90k
place $350 on 35 numbers
Hardly that will ever only 2 numbers come in next 10 spins, so he would always win because he can double 10x.
By the way do you know something about pierre basieux material? He has a very known book glück und geschick… ı tried to find the english translated version of it but ı couldnt
Lucky strike has some/.
Lets bring this topic back to life. Any suggestions anyone ?
So i believe that casino’s edge is 2.7 percent and that is undeniable. However, a casino has a much higher bankroll than a player and they have a maximum bet calculated by stats expert. I can confidently say, the reason that a gambler appear to lose that much is that he bet too much just like an ap overbet would cause him to bankrupt but just much worse with the house edge