Hi all, new member here,
I’ve just been reading a few of the posts and they seem to point to the fact that all I have to do is change the time I observe the ball. Lets say its 1 second and every 1 second the number under the ball is the same then that’s my predicted number of where the ball exits. Is that correct?
Also, that is for when the rotor (wheel spin) time is 4 seconds. What happens if the rotor speed is something like 3 seconds? Or 5 seconds? Sorry if this seems silly, that’s just my understanding of it so far.
Hi all, new member here,
I assume you are talking about VB2.
VB2 claims that it predicts same number in any rotation. Perhaps not in every rotation but reasonably same number within few rotations during the spin.
If that is the truth then it can be used to find which reference time to use.
Say when the ball is at diamond at 12 o clock you apply 1.5s time.
When the time elapses you read number under the ball. Right after that you do it again. If the time was correct the number would be same. If it is not you try say 1.7 s and see how it looks.
Once you define time you use it. Some people get confused at the start believing they have to apply it always 2 times. When you play you apply the time only once. But it means regardless did you apply it in that moment or 0n or 2 rotations earlier or later the reference number will be same.
If rotor drastically changes form 5s to 3 s, most likely the time needs to be longer. If you start with 5s rotor your time is ok when rotor is 4.5 -5.5s. You have to adjust for rotor speed differences but you still can use same time.
Sometimes when I count reference time as quickly counting 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9.10,1,2,3,4,5 in the case of faster rotor I may just count few more.
When talks are about VB2 method usually their are not very clear and many not understand how and why we see the same number, no matter when we start. Very easy to understand all when we apply reference time which is the same as ball time per rotation. So in this case VB2 becomes equal to VB which some name as traditional VB.
So say we apply 1000 ms and ball do one rotation in 1 sec. And say after that we see 0 If we start earlier by 1 rot ball do longer distance - so say it do about 1.2 of rotations but that final time is earlier also and number 0 still not come to 12 DD and it is in about 2 DD so when ball pass 1.2 rotations it is again very near to 0.
The same when we star later - ball go slower and do say 0.8 rotation but that is later and 0 is in 10 Dd and we again see ball near to 0.
So that is why we see the same number.
But now we come to main- which is relationship between what we see and what will fall in the end.
Go back to start position and when ball do 1 rotation in ref time from this moment till the end must be left about the same time , lets say that it is 10 sec.
So if ball will fall at 12 DD wheel will do 2 rotations and again here we will see the same number 0.
But if wheel is moving with speed 4 sec/rot - it will do 2.5 rotations and we will see at 12 DD where ball will fall 5/10.
We simply must react to that and after clocking rotor detect which offset to add acordingly wheel speed or increase reference time for ball.
Past was realized in FF when it had VB2 program , but it is not very good because if wheel speeds changes drastically and still we start very wide - we get very big non linearity prediction number and final number even if all hits are in the same place…
So in mine opinnion - better use always the same ref time and add offset acordingly wheel speed.
Perfect ;D 8)
Thanks so much for the reply, makes it a bit clearer for me, I’ll have a read and try to understand it more now