# How it's possible?

If you have 2 systems that do not work and if you combine them it still doesn’t work since none of them could produce advantage.

If you have 2 systems one works and one doesn’t if you combine them the result shouldn’t be better than results from the system that works.

Someone who bought FF plays it uses VB plays tilt, level, … claims that mapping his prediction before spin helps him to win more. I can’t disclose how he maps it (he calls it pre-prediction). So before spin he determinates area where next spin the ball should stop. Then he predicts and if it matches then he plays.

We analyzed his pre-prediction and come in to conclusion that it doesn’t produce any advantage by itself. But past year he claims that he has won more then \$500,000.

How it’s possible?
It’s as 0+1>1

Is he Chuck Norris…?

Suppose you have 2 players. One player is trying to play every possible spin and the other player is yours, who uses a system or something to be much more cautious about when he actually bets. He could be betting only during ideal spin conditions whereas the other player is betting every spin including the marginal ones. Does it increase his edge? No. Does it reduce his variance? Yes.

Just my theory.

BTW it wouldn’t be the first time someone has claimed a huge win with a system.

I won 1,000,000\$ with Mark’s PDA using it before the ball and wheel are spun.

It’s more as defining by dealers signature DS where the next spin will go then using FF or VB to predict. If prediction do match with previous DS, he will play. But DS by itself doesn’t produce him any advantage, so by my opinion it’s pointless to use it. However he claims all together gives him better results than just FF or VB, so i do not understand how it can be.

Long live MH.

I kinda assumed that he was using blind DS. Either way, he is betting less spins than say player B so I still think that if he has better results it’s more because of a decrease in volatility in variance. Suppose his DS is very speed specific, then he plays only a speed or two where he feels he has an edge with DS. That may help him make better predictions compared to Player B who is playing almost every speed. DS alone may not produce a positive edge, but it might negate the house edge in that case slightly working in his favour by decreasing volatility. I think if he is having positive results it has more to do with the number of spins played vs the number of potential spins played. I have seen it before first hand where I could have played say 20 of 30 spins but instead was super picky and only played 4-5. My hit rate was better because I was way more picky about the conditions. Did I have a higher edge than had I played the 20 spins? Not really, I just didn’t have any marginal losing spins or any real variance. I’m guessing his success has to do with that decrease in volatility. If he claims it works better for him, all the power to him. I doubt everyone will have the same results.

But if DS doesn’t produce any advantage then he can reduce amount of spins as if he randomly picks area on the wheel then if prediction matches it he can play. But I do not see the point of DS.

I used expression DS just as an example it is more as if number 2 and 5 are last winners , than play 32 area, or if it is 2 and 9 play around 17. He follows very complicated pattern based on some laws but it doesn’t produce any advantage by itself.

For me it just doesn’t make any sense. The only explanation I can see is it lets him play slower perhaps regulate impulsiveness.

For me it just doesn’t make any sense. The only explanation I can see is it lets him play slower perhaps regulate impulsiveness. Believing in that lets him observe more spins.

It’s obvious he is playing less spins this way. I figure once his spin count gets larger the results are going to be pretty much the same with or without the DS or maybe a slight positive edge in his favour. It seems like you are trying to understand his results without taking into account the amount of spins he has played.

"So before spin he determinates area where next spin the ball should stop. Then he predicts and if it matches then he plays. "
To find out if it matches must not wait for the ball drop? If so where is the time to bet? As you’ve explained it seems that he bet when the ball is dropped.

No he pre-predicts based on previous spins, than VB or FF.

Then just luck and I think that Davey Jones is right.

Thanks for the vote of confidence Gigino!

I think he could have been playing not much at all during that time. Because even it is proven that system doesn’t work, it still can work in a short-term and there is a luck involved in a game of roulette. But overall if he continues to play losing strategy, he will end up broke.